Question

Expand $(\cos x+i\sin x)^2$ and solve $(\cos x+i\sin x)^2=1$

Original question: 7 (a) (i) By first expanding (cosx+isinx)2(\cos x+i\sin x)^2, find the roots solutions of the equation (cosx+isinx)2=1(\cos x+i\sin x)^2=1 for 0xπ0\le x\le \pi.

(ii) Hence verify that the only solutions of the equation cosx+sinx=1\cos x+\sin x=1 for 0xπ0\le x\le \pi are 00 and π2\frac{\pi}{2}.

Expert Verified Solution

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Expert intro: This problem links complex numbers with trigonometric identities. Expanding the expression and comparing real and imaginary parts gives the required solutions cleanly.

Detailed walkthrough

Step 1: Expand the square

Let

z=cosx+isinx.z=\cos x+i\sin x.

Then

z2=(cosx+isinx)2.z^2=(\cos x+i\sin x)^2.

Expanding gives

cos2xsin2x+2isinxcosx.\cos^2 x-\sin^2 x+2i\sin x\cos x.

So the equation

(cosx+isinx)2=1(\cos x+i\sin x)^2=1

becomes

cos2xsin2x+2isinxcosx=1.\cos^2 x-\sin^2 x+2i\sin x\cos x=1.

Step 2: Match real and imaginary parts

Since 11 is real, the imaginary part must be zero:

2sinxcosx=0.2\sin x\cos x=0.

So

sinx=0orcosx=0.\sin x=0 \quad \text{or} \quad \cos x=0.

Case 1: sinx=0\sin x=0

For 0xπ0\le x\le \pi, this gives

x=0, π.x=0,\ \pi.

Check the original equation:

  • x=0x=0: (1+i0)2=1(1+i\cdot 0)^2=1
  • x=πx=\pi: (1+i0)2=1(-1+i\cdot 0)^2=1

Both work.

Case 2: cosx=0\cos x=0

For 0xπ0\le x\le \pi, this gives

x=π2.x=\frac{\pi}{2}.

Check:

(0+i1)2=1,(0+i\cdot 1)^2=-1,

so this does not satisfy the equation.

Step 3: List the solutions

Thus the solutions of

(cosx+isinx)2=1(\cos x+i\sin x)^2=1

for 0xπ0\le x\le \pi are

x=0, π.x=0,\ \pi.

Step 4: Verify the trigonometric equation

Now consider

cosx+sinx=1.\cos x+\sin x=1.

Rewrite as

2cos(xπ4)=1,\sqrt{2}\cos\left(x-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=1,

so

cos(xπ4)=12.\cos\left(x-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=\frac{1}{\sqrt2}.

For 0xπ0\le x\le \pi, the solutions are

x=0andx=π2.x=0 \quad \text{and} \quad x=\frac{\pi}{2}.

Final answer

  • (cosx+isinx)2=1(\cos x+i\sin x)^2=1 on [0,π][0,\pi] gives x=0,πx=0,\pi.
  • cosx+sinx=1\cos x+\sin x=1 on [0,π][0,\pi] has solutions x=0x=0 and x=π2x=\frac{\pi}{2}.

💡 Pitfall guide

Do not stop after setting the imaginary part to zero; you must also check the real part and verify each candidate in the original equation. Also, x=π2x=\frac{\pi}{2} solves cosx+sinx=1\cos x+\sin x=1 but not (cosx+isinx)2=1(\cos x+i\sin x)^2=1.

🔄 Real-world variant

If the equation were (cosx+isinx)n=1(\cos x+i\sin x)^n=1, then De Moivre’s theorem would give nx=2kπnx=2k\pi for integers kk. The solution set on a restricted interval would depend on nn and the chosen domain.

🔍 Related terms

De Moivre’s theorem, complex roots, trigonometric identity

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