Question

How to use the limit comparison test to prove series convergence

Original question: 48. (a) Suppose that Σan\Sigma a_n and Σbn\Sigma b_n are series with positive terms and Σbn\Sigma b_n is convergent. Prove that if

limnanbn=0\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{a_n}{b_n} = 0

then Σan\Sigma a_n is also convergent.

(b) Use part (a) to show that the series converges.

(i) n=1lnnn3\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\ln n}{n^3}

(ii) n=1(1cos1n2)\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(1-\cos \frac{1}{n^2}\right)

Expert Verified Solution

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Expert intro: A clean way to handle positive-term series is to compare them with something you already know converges. Here the key move is to squeeze the smaller series underneath a convergent one.

Detailed walkthrough

(a) Why Σan\Sigma a_n converges

Assume an>0a_n>0, bn>0b_n>0, and bn\sum b_n converges. We are given

limnanbn=0.\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_n}{b_n}=0.

That limit means that for large nn, the ratio an/bna_n/b_n is tiny. In particular, there exists some NN such that for every nNn\ge N,

anbn<1,\frac{a_n}{b_n}<1,

so

an<bn(nN).a_n<b_n \qquad (n\ge N).

Because the terms are positive, we can compare tails:

n=Nann=Nbn.\sum_{n=N}^{\infty} a_n \le \sum_{n=N}^{\infty} b_n.

The right-hand side converges, so the left-hand side also converges by the comparison test. Adding the finite initial part n=1N1an\sum_{n=1}^{N-1} a_n does not change convergence, hence an\sum a_n converges.

(b)(i) n=1lnnn3\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\ln n}{n^3}

Take

bn=1n2.b_n=\frac{1}{n^2}.

Since 1n2\sum \frac{1}{n^2} converges, it is enough to show

limnlnnn31/n2=limnlnnn=0.\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\frac{\ln n}{n^3}}{1/n^2} =\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\ln n}{n}=0.

That limit is standard, so by part (a),

n=1lnnn3\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\ln n}{n^3}

converges.

(b)(ii) n=1(1cos1n2)\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(1-\cos\frac{1}{n^2}\right)

Use the fact that for small xx,

1cosxx22.1-\cos x \sim \frac{x^2}{2}.

A simple comparison is even enough: for all real xx,

1cosxx22.1-\cos x \le \frac{x^2}{2}.

With x=1n2x=\frac{1}{n^2},

1cos1n212n4.1-\cos\frac{1}{n^2}\le \frac{1}{2n^4}.

Now compare with the convergent pp-series 1n4\sum \frac{1}{n^4}. So

n=1(1cos1n2)\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(1-\cos\frac{1}{n^2}\right)

converges.

If you want to phrase part (b) strictly using part (a), you can also note that

limn1cos(1/n2)1/n4=12,\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1-\cos(1/n^2)}{1/n^4}=\frac12,

so the series behaves like 1n4\sum \frac{1}{n^4}.

💡 Pitfall guide

A common slip is forgetting that part (a) needs positive terms. That matters because the comparison argument is based on inequalities between tails. Another easy mistake is choosing a comparison series that is not known to converge. For example, in (i) comparing with 1/n\sum 1/n would be too weak; 1/n2\sum 1/n^2 is the right size. In (ii), many students remember 1cosxx1-\cos x\approx x, but the correct small-angle behavior is quadratic, not linear.

🔄 Real-world variant

If the numerator in (i) were a slower-growing function, like lnlnn\ln\ln n, the same idea would still work as long as you compare against a convergent pp-series and the ratio goes to 00. For (ii), if the angle were 1/n1/n, then 1cos(1/n)1-\cos(1/n) would behave like 1/(2n2)1/(2n^2), so the series would still converge. If the angle were much larger, say 1/n1/\sqrt n, then the same expansion would give a term comparable to 1/n1/n, which would change the outcome.

🔍 Related terms

comparison test, limit comparison test, p-series

FAQ

How do you prove that a positive-term series converges when a_n/b_n -> 0 and sum b_n converges?

Since a_n/b_n -> 0, for all large n we have a_n < b_n. The tail of sum a_n is then bounded above by the tail of the convergent series sum b_n, so sum a_n converges by the comparison test.

Why do the series sum (ln n)/n^3 and sum(1-cos(1/n^2)) converge?

For sum (ln n)/n^3, compare with sum 1/n^2 because (ln n/n^3)/(1/n^2)=ln n/n -> 0. For sum(1-cos(1/n^2)), use 1-cos x <= x^2/2, giving 1-cos(1/n^2) <= 1/(2n^4), so the series converges by comparison with the p-series sum 1/n^4.

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