Question

Evaluate binomial coefficient expressions for a given value of k

Original question: Question 8 Let a=(k2)a=\binom{k}{2} and b=(3k+1)b=\binom{3}{k+1}. Determine (a) bβˆ’ab-a when k=1k=1. (1 mark)

Expert Verified Solution

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Expert intro: This is a straightforward substitution problem, but the notation can look more intimidating than it really is.

Detailed walkthrough

We are given a=(k2),b=(3k+1).a=\binom{k}{2},\qquad b=\binom{3}{k+1}.

For k=1k=1: a=(12)=0,a=\binom{1}{2}=0, because there are no ways to choose 2 items from 1 item.

Also, b=(31+1)=(32)=3.b=\binom{3}{1+1}=\binom{3}{2}=3.

Therefore, bβˆ’a=3βˆ’0=3.b-a=3-0=\boxed{3}.

The answer is small, but the reasoning matters: binomial coefficients with an upper number smaller than the lower number are zero.

πŸ’‘ Pitfall guide

Don’t confuse (3k+1)\binom{3}{k+1} with (k+13)\binom{k+1}{3}. The order matters. Also, remember that (12)\binom{1}{2} is not 1; it is 0 because the selection is impossible.

πŸ”„ Real-world variant

If k=2k=2, then a=(22)=1a=\binom{2}{2}=1 and b=(33)=1b=\binom{3}{3}=1, so bβˆ’a=0b-a=0. If the question instead asked for a+ba+b, you would simply add the two evaluated coefficients after substitution.

πŸ” Related terms

binomial coefficient, combinatorics, substitution

FAQ

What is binomial coefficient notation?

The notation nCr or binom(n,r) counts how many ways to choose r items from n items.

Why is binom(1,2) equal to 0?

Because you cannot choose 2 items from only 1 item, so the number of ways is zero.

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