Question

Probability that two equally likely values are ordered

Original question: (b) A random variable YY takes nn values, each of which is equally likely. Two values, Y1Y_1 and Y2Y_2, of YY are chosen at random.

It is given that P(Y1=Y2Y_1 = Y_2) = 0.02.

Find P(Y1>Y2Y_1 > Y_2). [2]

Expert Verified Solution

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Key concept: This problem combines equal-likelihood outcomes with symmetry. Once the probability of equality is known, the remaining probability splits evenly between the cases Y1 > Y2 and Y1 < Y2.

Step by step

Step 1: Understand the sample space

The random variable YY has nn equally likely values. Two values Y1Y_1 and Y2Y_2 are chosen at random, and we are told

P(Y1=Y2)=0.02.P(Y_1=Y_2)=0.02.

We want P(Y1>Y2)P(Y_1>Y_2).

Because the two values are chosen in a symmetric way, the events Y1>Y2Y_1>Y_2 and Y1<Y2Y_1<Y_2 have the same probability.

Step 2: Use symmetry

All possible outcomes fall into three categories:

  1. Y1=Y2Y_1=Y_2
  2. Y1>Y2Y_1>Y_2
  3. Y1<Y2Y_1<Y_2

These probabilities add to 1:

P(Y1=Y2)+P(Y1>Y2)+P(Y1<Y2)=1.P(Y_1=Y_2)+P(Y_1>Y_2)+P(Y_1<Y_2)=1.

By symmetry,

P(Y1>Y2)=P(Y1<Y2).P(Y_1>Y_2)=P(Y_1<Y_2).

So the remaining probability after equality is split equally:

P(Y1>Y2)=1P(Y1=Y2)2.P(Y_1>Y_2)=\frac{1-P(Y_1=Y_2)}{2}.

Substitute the given value:

P(Y1>Y2)=10.022=0.982=0.49.P(Y_1>Y_2)=\frac{1-0.02}{2}=\frac{0.98}{2}=0.49.

Step 3: Why the symmetry works

This works because there is no built-in preference for one order over the other. If a pair of values is not equal, then exactly one of the two orderings must be true: either the first is larger or the second is larger. Since the setup treats the two draws evenly, those two cases must have the same probability.

So the required probability is

0.49.\boxed{0.49}.

This is a classic symmetry shortcut that avoids listing every possible pair.

Pitfall alert

A common mistake is to subtract 0.02 from 1 and stop there, giving 0.98. That ignores the fact that the non-equal outcomes are split between two opposite orderings. Another error is to assume P(Y1>Y2)P(Y_1>Y_2) depends on the actual number of values nn. In this question, the exact value of nn is not needed because the equality probability already tells you everything required. The symmetry argument is the key.

Try different conditions

If the question changed to P(Y1Y2)P(Y_1\ge Y_2), then you would include both the greater-than case and the equality case. Using the same numbers, P(Y1Y2)=0.49+0.02=0.51P(Y_1\ge Y_2)=0.49+0.02=0.51. If the given equality probability were 0.10 instead of 0.02, then P(Y1>Y2)=10.102=0.45P(Y_1>Y_2)=\frac{1-0.10}{2}=0.45. The method stays the same: remove the equal case, then split the remainder evenly.

Further reading

symmetry in probability, equally likely outcomes, ordered pairs

FAQ

Why are P(Y1 greater than Y2) and P(Y1 less than Y2) equal?

Because the two values are chosen in a symmetric way, there is no bias toward one ordering. Every unequal pair has one greater-than outcome and one less-than outcome.

How do you use the equality probability to find the greater-than probability?

Subtract the equality probability from 1, then divide by 2 because the remaining probability is shared equally between Y1 > Y2 and Y1 < Y2.

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