Question
Why the graph of $f(x)=x^4$ has no inflection points
Original question: Example 3) Show the function has no points of inflection.
,
,
is never undefined
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No point of inflection since is always concave up
Expert Verified Solution
Key concept: A clean way to test inflection points is to check where concavity changes. For , the second derivative gives the whole story, and the sign never flips.
Step by step
Step 1: Differentiate twice
Start with
First derivative:
Second derivative:
Step 2: Find where concavity could change
Set the second derivative equal to zero:
That is the only candidate.
Step 3: Check the sign of on both sides
For every real ,
and in fact whenever .
So on both sides of , the graph remains concave up.
Step 4: Decide whether an inflection point exists
An inflection point needs a change in concavity. Here, there is no change:
- left of : concave up
- right of : concave up
So is not an inflection point.
Conclusion
Pitfall alert
A common mistake is to think that because , there must be an inflection point there. That is not enough. You still have to check whether changes sign. If it stays positive or stays negative, there is no inflection point.
Try different conditions
If the function were , then , which does change sign at . That is exactly the kind of situation where an inflection point does occur. The difference is not whether is zero, but whether concavity switches.
Further reading
second derivative test, concavity, inflection point
FAQ
How do you show that $f(x)=x^4$ has no inflection points?
Compute $f''(x)=12x^2$. Since $12x^2\ge 0$ for all real $x$, the concavity never changes from concave up to concave down or the other way around. Therefore, $f(x)=x^4$ has no inflection points.
Does $f''(0)=0$ automatically mean there is an inflection point?
No. A point is an inflection point only if concavity changes there. If the second derivative is zero but keeps the same sign on both sides, then there is no inflection point.